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NEW QUESTION # 43
How many emergency management disaster drills are required per year in a healthcare occupancy?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
Federal and accreditor requirements establish two emergency exercises per year for hospitals: one full-scale community-based (or facility-based if community-based is not available) and a second exercise (which may be a second full-scale or an exercise such as a tabletop). Real events may be used to meet one of the required exercises when criteria are met.
References:
Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS), Emergency Preparedness Rule - State Operations Manual, Appendix Z (Hospitals) - annual exercise requirements.
The Joint Commission, Emergency Management (EM) standards - requirement for two emergency exercises annually.
AHA/CHFM Exam Content Outline - Compliance domain (emergency management requirements).
NEW QUESTION # 44
Engineering controls required by the CDC for TB isolation rooms include
- A. engineering departmental policies and procedures.
- B. respirator fit testing of engineering employees.
- C. use of personal protective equipment.
- D. negative air pressure of rooms.
Answer: D
Explanation:
CDC Guidelines for Preventing the Transmission of Mycobacterium tuberculosis in Health-Care Facilities (1994, reaffirmed in later updates) require negative pressure isolation rooms as a primary engineering control.
This ensures airflow moves into the room and is exhausted to the outside or through HEPA filtration. PPE and respirator fit testing are administrative or personal controls, not engineering.
References: CDC Guidelines for TB Control; NFPA 99; ASHRAE 170.
NEW QUESTION # 45
A facilities department's annual expense budget is $5,000,000. The actual expenses for the first 4 months were
$500,000, $650,000, $700,000, and $450,000. What is the monthly spending average required to maintain the original annual budget expectations?
- A. $350,000
- B. $337,500
- C. $500,000
Step-by-Step Calculation:
Total spent first 4 months = 500,000 + 650,000 + 700,000 + 450,000 = $2,300,000.
Remaining budget = $5,000,000 - $2,300,000 = $2,700,000.
Remaining months = 12 - 4 = 8 months.
Required monthly average = $2,700,000 ÷ 8 = $337,500. - D. $416,667
Answer: B
Explanation:
To stay within the $5,000,000 annual budget, the facilities department must reduce monthly spending to
$337,500 for the remaining 8 months.
Reference: CHFM Candidate Handbook - Financial Management domain, budgeting and forecasting.
NEW QUESTION # 46
What is the required fire rating of a door in a 2-hour rated wall assembly?
- A. 2 hours
- B. 1 1/2 hours
- C. 1/2 hour
- D. 1 hour
Answer: B
Explanation:
NFPA opening-protective tables specify that doors protecting openings in 2-hour fire-resistance-rated fire barriers are required to have a 1-1/2-hour (90-minute) fire protection rating. This distinction between the wall' s fire-resistance rating and the door's fire-protection rating is standard in NFPA 101 and NFPA 80.
References:
NFPA 101: Life Safety Code - Table for opening protective ratings in fire-resistance-rated assemblies.
NFPA 80: Standard for Fire Doors and Other Opening Protectives - Fire door rating requirements for 2-hour barriers.
AHA/CHFM Exam Content Outline - Compliance domain (Life Safety Code requirements).
NEW QUESTION # 47
Which of the following must be included in a written fire procedure or plan?
- A. locations of fire extinguishers
- B. method for notifying the fire department
- C. listing of the pull-station locations
- D. posted evacuation routes
Answer: B
Explanation:
Written fire procedures must include the method for promptly notifying the fire department or emergency response agency, ensuring immediate response to protect life and property. Evacuation routes and equipment locations are important operational elements, but the mandatory code requirement is a defined notification procedure.
References: NFPA 101, Section 4.7; Joint Commission Environment of Care Standards, EC.02.03.01.
NEW QUESTION # 48
According to The Joint Commission Emergency Management Standards, a facility must
- A. evaluate capabilities and response efforts for the organization to maintain operations for 96 hours.
- B. establish agreements with utility, equipment, and supply vendors to provide support in order to maintain operations for 96 hours.
- C. provide utilities, equipment, and supplies in order to maintain operations for 96 hours.
- D. maintain inventories of critical supplies in sufficient quantities to maintain operations for 96 hours.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Joint Commission Emergency Management Standards require organizations to evaluate their capabilities and plan for how they would maintain operations during an emergency for up to 96 hours. This does not mandate stockpiling or guaranteeing resources for that duration, but rather ensuring that the facility has assessed its resources, strategies, and agreements to maintain patient care and safety during prolonged emergency conditions.
Incorrect Options:
A and B: Maintaining actual supplies/utilities for 96 hours is not specifically required.
C: Agreements with vendors may be part of the plan but are not the mandated standard.
References:
The Joint Commission: Emergency Management (EM) Standards - 96-hour sustainment requirement.
AHA/ASHE CHFM Review Materials - Compliance domain: Emergency preparedness and response.
CHFM Candidate Handbook - Compliance domain outlines emergency management as a tested area.
NEW QUESTION # 49
An electrical transformer has 254 turns in the primary winding and 127 turns in the secondary winding. If a source emf of 220 volts is applied to the primary coil, the value of the voltage available in the secondary coil is
- A. 440.
- B. 110.
- C. 220.
- D. 127.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The transformer voltage ratio is determined by the turns ratio:
#
#
#
#
=
#
#
#
#
V
p
V
s
=
N
p
N
s
#
#
=
#
#
×
127
254
=
220
×
0.5
=
110
volts
V
s
=V
p
×
254
127
=220×0.5=110volts
A). 110 (Correct): Secondary voltage is half of the primary because turns ratio = 0.5.
B). 127: Incorrect, not consistent with ratio.
C). 220: Would occur only if turns ratio = 1.
D). 440: Would occur if secondary had twice as many turns as primary.
References:
NFPA 70: National Electrical Code - Transformer basics.
CHFM Candidate Handbook - Maintenance and Operations (Electrical Systems).
NEW QUESTION # 50
When more than one employee works on equipment that must be locked-out in accordance with OSHA regulations, which of the following is an acceptable procedure to follow?
- A. Utilize a multiple lockout device that allows each individual working on the equipment to apply a personal lock on the energy-isolating device.
- B. Utilize a single lock on the energy-isolating device and provide each employee with a copy of the key to the lock.
- C. Utilize a multiple lockout device on the cabinet and place one commonly keyed lock on the multiple lockout device for each employee.
- D. Utilize a single lock and apply a tag to the energy-isolating device with the name of each employee listed.
Answer: A
Explanation:
OSHA's Control of Hazardous Energy (Lockout/Tagout) standard, 29 CFR 1910.147, requires that each authorized employee shall affix a personal lockout device to the energy-isolating device when they are working on equipment. This ensures that energy cannot be restored until every individual has removed their own lock, thereby directly protecting each worker.
Correct (D): The standard explicitly describes the use of a multiple lockout device (commonly called a hasp), where each employee applies their own personal lock. No lock may be removed until the individual's work is complete.
Incorrect Options:
A: Listing multiple names on a single lock/tag does not meet OSHA's requirement for individual control.
B: Providing multiple keys to a single lock defeats the purpose of individual energy control and is not compliant.
C: Commonly keyed locks are prohibited because one employee could remove another's lock.
Relevance to CHFM Exam (Compliance Domain):
The CHFM exam tests knowledge of OSHA workplace safety standards because healthcare facility managers must ensure compliance in utility and maintenance operations. Proper lockout/tagout procedures are critical for worker safety and regulatory adherence.
References:
OSHA 29 CFR 1910.147: The Control of Hazardous Energy (Lockout/Tagout) Standard.
AHA/CHFM Candidate Handbook - Compliance domain includes OSHA safety regulations.
NEW QUESTION # 51
In an outpatient clinic classified as a business occupancy, The Joint Commission requires fire drills to be held how often?
- A. every 6 months
- B. every 12 months
- C. every 3 months
- D. once a month
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Joint Commission (TJC) aligns with NFPA 101: Life Safety Code. For business occupancies (such as outpatient clinics), the requirement is that fire drills be conducted annually (every 12 months).
Quarterly (every 3 months) drills are required for healthcare occupancies (hospitals, nursing care).
Outpatient business occupancies are less stringent.
References:
NFPA 101: Life Safety Code - Business Occupancy section.
The Joint Commission, Environment of Care Standards - Fire drill requirements.
CHFM Candidate Handbook - Compliance domain.
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NEW QUESTION # 52
Which of the following types of injuries is most likely to occur during an MRI scanning process?
- A. permanent hearing loss
- B. visual impairment
- C. radiation overexposure
- D. missile projection
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) scanners do not use ionizing radiation; instead, they use powerful magnetic fields and radiofrequency energy. The primary safety hazard is the projectile effect (missile effect), where ferromagnetic objects are pulled violently into the scanner bore. This is one of the most well- documented risks in MRI safety and is a leading cause of MRI accidents.
* Correct Answer (D. missile projection): Strong magnetic fields can accelerate ferromagnetic objects, causing serious patient/staff injury or equipment damage.
* Incorrect Options:
* A. visual impairment: Not a recognized risk from MRI scanning itself.
* B. radiation overexposure: MRI does not use ionizing radiation, unlike CT or X-ray.
* C. permanent hearing loss: While MRI noise can be damaging without ear protection, the most likely injury of those listed is projectile accidents.
Relevance to CHFM: This falls under Compliance and Safety domains. Facility managers must ensure MRI safety zones, access control, ferromagnetic detection systems, and staff training to prevent accidents.
References:
ACR (American College of Radiology): MRI Safety Guidelines - Projectile/missile effect identified as the greatest risk.
NFPA 99: Health Care Facilities Code, Chapter 15 - MRI safety environment requirements.
CHFM Candidate Handbook - Compliance with clinical safety codes and standards.
NEW QUESTION # 53
A diesel emergency generator is rated at 500 KVA. When the generator is tested, the load on it is 220 KVA.
According to the NFPA, the MINIMUM testing requirements are to run the unit
- A. monthly until the water temperature and oil pressure have stabilized.
- B. annually with supplemental loads for 30 minutes.
- C. monthly under load for 30 minutes.
- D. annually with supplemental loads for 2 hours.
Answer: A
Explanation:
NFPA 110 (Standard for Emergency and Standby Power Systems) requires that emergency generators be tested monthly under load. If the available load is less than 30% of the generator's nameplate rating, the test may be conducted until operating parameters (water temperature, oil pressure) stabilize. For longer durations, supplemental loading or load bank testing applies, but the minimum standard is monthly operation until systems stabilize.
Reference: NFPA 110 (2010), Section 8.4.2.
NEW QUESTION # 54
Regulated medical waste should be handled in which of the following ways?
- A. refrigerated at 40° F
- B. separated from other types of waste
- C. incinerated within 10 days of collection
- D. labeled with specific content
Answer: B
Explanation:
According to federal and state healthcare waste management standards, regulated medical waste must always be separated from general waste streams at the point of generation. Proper segregation ensures compliance with OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogens Standard, EPA's Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA), and The Joint Commission's Environment of Care standards. Containers for regulated waste must be red, leak- resistant, and labeled with the universal biohazard symbol.
Correct Answer (D. separated from other types of waste): CHFM compliance and Environment of Care standards require that infectious or hazardous medical waste be physically separated to prevent cross- contamination and maintain compliance with infection control protocols.
A (labeled with specific content): While containers must be labeled, they do not list specific contents; only the biohazard designation is required.
B (refrigerated at 40°F): Refrigeration applies only in specific storage conditions, not universally required for all regulated medical waste.
C (incinerated within 10 days): Time requirements vary by jurisdiction; incineration within 10 days is not a universal federal mandate.
References:
American Hospital Association, CHFM Candidate Handbook - Compliance domain, safety, and waste handling requirements.
OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard (29 CFR 1910.1030).
EPA RCRA Medical Waste Tracking Act guidance.
The Joint Commission, Environment of Care Standards.
NEW QUESTION # 55
A facility manager is reviewing the following bids received for mowing services:
Vendor 1 - $25,000 annually
Vendor 2 - $970.00 per mowing at 30 mowings per year
Vendor 3 - $950.00 per mowing at 26 mowings per year
Vendor 4 - $2,100 per month
Which vendor is the least expensive?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
Calculation:
Vendor 1 = $25,000 annually
Vendor 2 = $970 × 30 = $29,100 annually
Vendor 3 = $950 × 26 = $24,700 annually
Vendor 4 = $2,100 × 12 = $25,200 annually
Least expensive = Vendor 3 ($24,700).
References: CHFM Handbook - Financial Management, vendor bid analysis and cost comparison.
NEW QUESTION # 56
Which of the following techniques are used for predictive maintenance?
vibration monitoring
oil analysis
PM frequency analysis
ultrasound
- A. 1, 3, and 4 only
- B. 1, 2, and 4 only
- C. 2, 3, and 4 only
- D. 1, 2, and 3 only
Answer: B
Explanation:
Predictive maintenance involves techniques that monitor the condition of equipment to anticipate failure before it occurs. Common predictive techniques include:
Vibration monitoring (1) - Detects imbalance, misalignment, or bearing wear.
Oil analysis (2) - Identifies contamination, wear particles, or breakdown in lubricants.
Ultrasound (4) - Detects leaks, arcing, and mechanical friction.
PM frequency analysis (3) is part of preventive maintenance, not predictive maintenance.
References:
ASHE/CHFM Study Guide - Maintenance strategies (preventive vs. predictive).
AHA/CHFM Candidate Handbook - Maintenance and Operations domain.
________________________________________
NEW QUESTION # 57
At the end of an 8-hour electrical shutdown, after the maintenance work is completed but before the cabinets are closed up or the system re-energized, a final inspection should be completed by individuals who have
- A. "fresh eyes" and go/no go authority.
- B. gathered feedback and attended the lessons learned debriefing.
- C. been involved since the beginning of the shutdown.
- D. working knowledge of the generators and switch gear.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Best practice in safety and risk management is to have a final inspection performed by individuals with "fresh eyes" and go/no-go authority. Those directly involved may overlook issues due to task familiarity.
Independent inspection reduces risk before re-energization.
References: NFPA 70E (Electrical Safety in the Workplace); AHA/ASHE recommended practices; CHFM Handbook - Administration and Compliance domains.
NEW QUESTION # 58
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