CRISC Dumps Updated Jan 08, 2025 Practice Test and 1478 unique questions
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To be eligible for the CRISC certification, candidates must have at least three years of experience in IT risk management and information systems control, as well as a strong understanding of IT governance principles. CRISC exam is typically taken by IT professionals, such as risk managers, IT auditors, information security professionals, and compliance officers. Passing the CRISC certification exam demonstrates that the candidate has the skills and knowledge required to manage risks and ensure the effective implementation of controls within their organization's IT systems.
NEW QUESTION # 57
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to incorporate stakeholder concerns when developing risk scenarios?
- A. Evaluating risk impact
- B. Conducting internal audits
- C. Creating quarterly risk reports
- D. Establishing key performance indicators (KPIs)
Answer: A
Explanation:
The most effective way to incorporate stakeholder concerns when developing risk scenarios is to evaluate the risk impact. Risk impact is the extent of the potential consequences or losses that may result from a risk event.
Evaluating the risk impact involves considering the stakeholder concerns, expectations, and perspectives, as they may have different views on the value of the assets, the severity of the threats, and the acceptability of the outcomes. Evaluating the risk impact can help to ensure that the risk scenarios reflect the stakeholder interests and priorities, and that the risk responses are aligned with the stakeholder objectives. Establishing key performance indicators (KPIs), conducting internal audits, and creating quarterly risk reports are not as effective as evaluating the risk impact, as they are not directly related to the development of risk scenarios, and may not capture the stakeholder concerns adequately. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 50.
NEW QUESTION # 58
Which of the following is MOST useful when communicating risk to management?
- A. Risk policy
- B. Maturity model
- C. Audit report
- D. Risk map
Answer: A
Explanation:
A risk map is a visual tool that helps to communicate risk to management by showing the likelihood and impact of different risks on a matrix1. A risk map can help to:
* Identify the most critical risks that need immediate attention or action
* Compare and prioritize risks based on their severity and probability
* Align risk management strategies with the organization's risk appetite and tolerance
* Communicate risk information in a clear and concise way that is easy to understand and interpret2 References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Risk Assessment Process3
NEW QUESTION # 59
To communicate the risk associated with IT in business terms, which of the following MUST be defined?
- A. Inherent and residual risk
- B. Organizational objectives
- C. Compliance objectives
- D. Risk appetite of the organization
Answer: D
Explanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual, risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk appetite is a key factor in communicating the risk associated with IT in business terms, because it helps to align the IT risk management with the business strategy and goals. Risk appetite also helps to define the risk tolerance and thresholds, which are the acceptable levels of variation around the objectives. The other options are not the correct answers, because they are not essential for communicating the risk associated with IT in business terms. Compliance objectives are the objectives that an organization must achieve to comply with the applicable laws, regulations, standards, and contracts.
Organizational objectives are the objectives that an organization sets to achieve its mission, vision, and values.
Inherent and residual risk are the risk levels before and after applying the risk responses, respectively. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.1, page 66.
NEW QUESTION # 60
Which of the following is the MOST effective way 10 identify an application backdoor prior to implementation'?
- A. User acceptance testing (UAT)
- B. Database activity monitoring
- C. Vulnerability analysis
- D. Source code review
Answer: D
Explanation:
A source code review is the process of examining and analyzing the source code of an application to identify any vulnerabilities, errors, or flaws that may compromise the security, functionality, or performance of the application. A source code review is the most effective way to identify an application backdoor prior to implementation, as it can detect any hidden or unauthorized code that may allow unauthorized access, bypass security controls, or execute malicious commands. A source code review can also help to improve the quality and reliability of the application, and ensure compliance with the coding standards and best practices. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 181.
NEW QUESTION # 61
Which of the following is the FIRST step when developing a business case to drive the adoption of a risk remediation project by senior management?
- A. Determining the stakeholders
- B. Identifying the objectives
- C. Calculating the cost
- D. Analyzing cost-effectiveness
Answer: B
Explanation:
The first step when developing a business case to drive the adoption of a risk remediation project by senior management is to identify the objectives of the project. The objectives are the specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound (SMART) goals that the project aims to accomplish. The objectives should be aligned with the organization's vision, mission, and strategy, as well as the identified business problem or opportunity. The objectives should also reflect the expected benefits and outcomes of the project, such as reducing the risk exposure, enhancing the security posture, or improving the business performance.
Identifying the objectives is the first step because it provides the direction, scope, and justification for the project, and it serves as the basis for evaluating the alternative solutions, estimating the costs and benefits, and communicating the value proposition to the senior management and other stakeholders. The other options are not the first step, although they may be subsequent or concurrent steps in the business case development process. Calculating the cost is a part of the financial analysis, which estimates the total expenditure and funding sources of the project, but it does not define the purpose or the scope of the project. Analyzing cost-effectiveness is a part of the economic analysis, which compares the costs and benefits of the alternative solutions and recommends the optimal one, but it does not specify the goals or the criteria of the project.
Determining the stakeholders is a part of the stakeholder analysis, which identifies and assesses the interests, expectations, and influence of the parties involved in or affected by the project, but it does not establish the objectives or the rationale of the project. References = Business case: 7 key steps to build it and use it - Twproject: project ..., Guide to developing the Project Business Case - GOV.UK, How to Write a Business Case: Template & Examples | Adobe Workfront
NEW QUESTION # 62
Risks with low ratings of probability and impact are included for future monitoring in which of the following?
- A. Risk register
- B. Risk alarm
- C. Watch-list
- D. Observation list
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Watch-list contains risks with low rating of probability and impact. This list is useful for future monitoring of low risk factors.
Incorrect Answers:
A, B: No such documents as risk alarm and observation list is prepared during risk identification process.
D: Risk register is a document that contains the results of the qualitative risk analysis, quantitative risk analysis, and risk response planning. Description, category, cause, probability of occurring, impact on objectives, proposed responses, owner, and the current status of all identified risks are put in the risk register.
NEW QUESTION # 63
You are the administrator of your enterprise. Which of the following controls would you use that BEST protects an enterprise from unauthorized individuals gaining access to sensitive information?
- A. Forcing periodic password changes
- B. Providing access on a need-to-know basis
- C. Explanation:
Physical or logical system access should be assigned on a need-to-know basis, where there is a legitimate business requirement based on least privilege and segregation of duties. This is done by user authentication. - D. Monitoring and recording unsuccessful logon attempts
- E. Using a challenge response system
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
is incorrect. Challenge response system is used to verify the user's identification but does not completely address the issue of access risk if access was not appropriately designed in the first place. Answer:B is incorrect. Forcing users to change their passwords does not ensure that access control is appropriately assigned. Answer:A is incorrect. Monitoring and recording unsuccessful logon attempts does not address the risk of appropriate access rights. In other words, it does not prevent unauthorized access.
NEW QUESTION # 64
To minimize risk in a software development project, when is the BEST time to conduct a risk analysis?
- A. During the business case development
- B. Before periodic steering committee meetings
- C. During the business requirement definitions phase
- D. At each stage of the development life cycle
Answer: D
Explanation:
The best time to conduct a risk analysis in a software development project is at each stage of the development life cycle. This is because risks can emerge or change at any point of the project, and they need to be identified, assessed, and managed as soon as possible. By conducting a risk analysis at each stage, the project team can ensure that the risks are aligned with the project objectives, scope, and deliverables, and that the appropriate risk responses are implemented and monitored. Conducting a risk analysis at each stage can also help to avoid or reduce the impact of potential issues, such as schedule delays, cost overruns, quality defects, and customer dissatisfaction. The other options are not the best time to conduct a risk analysis, although they may be useful or necessary depending on the project context and nature. Conducting a risk analysis during the business requirement definitions phase is important, but it is not sufficient, as the risks may change or evolve as the project progresses. Conducting a risk analysis before periodic steering committee meetings is a good practice, but it is not the only time to do so, as the risks may arise or escalate between the meetings.
Conducting a risk analysis during the business case development is a part of the project initiation process, but it is not the most effective time, as the risks may not be fully known or understood at that stage. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2: Risk Identification, Section 2.1:
Risk Identification Process, p. 79-80.
NEW QUESTION # 65
After a high-profile systems breach at an organization s key vendor, the vendor has implemented additional mitigating controls. The vendor has voluntarily shared the following set of assessments:
After a high-profile systems breach at an organization s key vendor, the vendor has implemented additional mitigating controls. The vendor has voluntarily shared the following set of assessments:
Which of the assessments provides the MOST reliable input to evaluate residual risk in the vendor's control environment?
- A. Vendor performance scorecard
- B. Internal audit
- C. Regulatory examination
- D. External audit
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 66
An organization is increasingly concerned about loss of sensitive data and asks the risk practitioner to assess the current risk level. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?
- A. Identify staff members who have access to the organization's sensitive data.
- B. Identify existing data loss controls and their levels of effectiveness.
- C. Identify locations where the organization's sensitive data is stored.
- D. Identify risk scenarios and owners associated with possible data loss vectors.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The first step in assessing the current risk level of data loss is to identify where the sensitive data is stored, such as servers, databases, laptops, mobile devices, etc. This will help to determine the scope and boundaries of the risk assessment, as well as the potential exposure and impact of data loss. Identifying staff members who have access to the data, risk scenarios and owners, and existing controls are important steps, but they should be done after identifying the data locations. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.1.1, page 51.
NEW QUESTION # 67
Prudent business practice requires that risk appetite not exceed:
- A. risk capacity.
- B. inherent risk.
- C. risk tolerance.
- D. residual risk.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 68
The PRIMARY reason to have risk owners assigned to entries in the risk register is to ensure:
- A. risk exposure is minimized.
- B. risk is treated appropriately
- C. mitigating actions are prioritized
- D. risk entries are regularly updated
Answer: B
Explanation:
The primary reason to have risk owners assigned to entries in the risk register is to ensure that risk is treated appropriately, as risk owners are responsible for implementing the risk response strategies and monitoring the risk status and outcomes. Risk owners are also accountable for the risk and its impact on the enterprise's objectives and operations. Having risk owners assigned to entries in the risk register helps to clarify the roles and responsibilities, improve the communication and coordination, and enhance the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk management process. Mitigating actions are prioritized, risk entries are regularly updated, and risk exposure is minimized are not the primary reasons to have risk owners assigned to entries in the risk register, but rather the results or benefits of having risk owners assigned to entries in the risk register.
References = CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, question 206; CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, question 206.
NEW QUESTION # 69
What are the two MAJOR factors to be considered while deciding risk appetite level? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
- A. The amount of loss the enterprise wants to accept
- B. Risk-aware decisions
- C. Alignment with risk-culture
- D. The capacity of the enterprise's objective to absorb loss.
- E. Explanation:
Risk appetite is the amount of risk a company or other entity is willing to accept in pursuit of its mission. This is the responsibility of the board to decide risk appetite of an enterprise. When considering the risk appetite levels for the enterprise, the following two major factors should be taken into account: The enterprise's objective capacity to absorb loss, e.g., financial loss, reputation damage, etc. The culture towards risk taking-cautious or aggressive. In other words, the amount of loss the enterprise wants to accept in pursue of its objective fulfillment.
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
is incorrect. Alignment with risk-culture is also one of the factors but is not as important as these two. Answer: C is incorrect. Risk aware decision is not the factor, but is the result which uses risk appetite information as its input.
NEW QUESTION # 70
During an internal IT audit, an active network account belonging to a former employee was identified. Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent future occurrences?
- A. Conduct a comprehensive awareness session for system administrators.
- B. Evaluate system administrators' technical skills to identify if training is required.
- C. Conduct a comprehensive review of access management processes.
- D. Declare a security incident and engage the incident response team.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The best way to prevent future occurrences of active network accounts belonging to former employees is to conduct a comprehensive review of access management processes. This review should include verifying that the access rights of all employees are updated regularly, especially when they change roles or leave the organization. The review should also ensure that there are clear policies and procedures for granting, modifying, and revoking access rights, and that these are followed consistently and documented properly. The review should also identify and address any gaps or weaknesses in the access management processes that could lead to unauthorized or inappropriate access. By conducting a comprehensive review of access management processes, the organization can improve its security posture and reduce the risk of data breaches or misuse of resources. References = IT audit: The ultimate guide [with checklist] | Zapier, IT auditing and controls - planning the IT audit [updated 2021]
NEW QUESTION # 71
When presenting risk, the BEST method to ensure that the risk is measurable against the organization's risk appetite is through the use of a:
- A. maturity model
- B. cause-and-effect diagram
- C. technology strategy plan.
- D. risk map
Answer: D
Explanation:
A risk map is the best method to ensure that the risk is measurable against the organization's risk appetite, as it is a graphical tool that displays the level and priority of risks based on their likelihood and impact, as well as other factors such as velocity, persistence, and urgency. A risk map can help to compare and communicate the risk levels across different business units, processes, and projects, and to align them with the organization's risk appetite and tolerance. A risk map can also help to identify the gaps and overlaps in risk management, and to support the decision making and resource allocation for risk response. A cause-and-effect diagram is a tool that helps to identify and analyze the root causes and consequences of a risk or a problem, but it does not measure the risk against the organization's risk appetite. A maturity model is a tool that helps to assess and improve the capability and performance of a process or a function, but it does not measure the risk against the organization's risk appetite. A technology strategy plan is a document that outlines the vision, goals, and objectives of the organization's use of information and technology, but it does not measure the risk against the organization's risk appetite. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Assessment, page 97.
NEW QUESTION # 72
Which of the following processes is described in the statement below?
"It is the process of implementing risk response plans, tracking identified risks, monitoring residual risk, identifying new risks, and evaluating risk process effectiveness throughout the project."
- A. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
- B. Monitor and Control Risks
- C. Identify Risks
- D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Monitor and Control Risk is the process of implementing risk response plans, tracking identified risks, monitoring residual risk, identifying new risks, and evaluating risk process effectiveness throughout the project. It can involve choosing alternative strategies, executing a contingency or fallback plan, taking corrective action, and modifying the project management plan.
Incorrect Answers:
B: This is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives.
C: This is the process of determining which risks may affect the project and documenting their characteristics.
D: This is the process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by accessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact.
NEW QUESTION # 73
Which of the following aspects are included in the Internal Environment Framework of COSO ERM?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
- A. Enterprise's integrity and ethical values
- B. Enterprise's human resource standards
- C. Enterprise's working environment
- D. Enterprise's risk appetite
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
The internal environment for risk management is the foundational level of the COSO ERM framework, which describes the philosophical basics of managing risks within the implementing enterprise. The different aspects of the internal environment include theenterprise's: Philosophy on risk management Risk appetite Attitudes of Board of Directors Integrity and ethical values Commitment to competence Organizational structure Authority and responsibility Human resource standards
NEW QUESTION # 74
Which of the following is the MOST important component of effective security incident response?
- A. Network time protocol synchronization
- B. Early detection of breaches
- C. A documented communications plan
- D. Identification of attack sources
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 75
You are the project manager for GHT project. You need to perform the Qualitative risk analysis process.
When you have completed this process, you will produce all of the following as part of the risk register update output except which one?
- A. Risks grouped by categories
- B. Probability of achieving time and cost estimates
- C. Watch list of low-priority risks
- D. Priority list of risks
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Probability of achieving time and cost estimates is an update that is produced from the Quantitative risk analysis process. In Qualitative risk analysis probability of occurrence of a specific risk is identified but not of achieving time and cost estimates.
NEW QUESTION # 76
You are the project manager of your enterprise. You have introduced an intrusion detection system for the control. You have identified a warning of violation of security policies of your enterprise. What type of control is an intrusion detection system (IDS)?
- A. Explanation:
An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a device or software application that monitors network and/or system activities for malicious activities or policy violations and produces reports to a Management Station. Some systems may attempt to stop an intrusion attempt but this is neither required nor expected of a monitoring system. Intrusion detection and prevention systems (IDPS) are primarily focused on identifying possible incidents, logging information about them, and reporting attempts. In addition, organizations use IDPS for other purposes,such as identifying problems with security policies, documenting existing threats, and deterring individuals from violating security policies. As IDS detects and gives warning when the violation of security policies of the enterprise occurs, it is a detective control. - B. Recovery
- C. Corrective
- D. Preventative
- E. Detective
Answer: E
Explanation:
is incorrect. As IDS only detects the problem when it occurs and not prior of its occurrence, it is not preventive control. Answer: B is incorrect. These controls make effort to reduce the impact of a threat from problems discovered by detective controls. As IDS only detects but nt reduce the impact, hence it is not a corrective control. Answer: D is incorrect. : These controls make efforts to overcome the impact of the incident on the business, hence IDS is not a recovery control.
NEW QUESTION # 77
The analysis of which of the following will BEST help validate whether suspicious network activity is malicious?
- A. Vulnerability assessment reports
- B. Logs and system events
- C. Penetration test reports
- D. Intrusion detection system (IDS) rules
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 78
An internally developed payroll application leverages Platform as a Service (PaaS) infrastructure from the cloud. Who owns the related data confidentiality risk?
- A. Human resources head
- B. IT infrastructure head
- C. Supplier management head
- D. Application development head
Answer: A
Explanation:
Data confidentiality risk is the risk that the data may be accessed, disclosed, or modified by unauthorized parties, resulting in breaches of privacy, trust, or compliance1. Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a cloud computing model that provides a platform for developing, testing, and deploying applications, without requiring the users to manage the underlying infrastructure2. An internally developed payroll application is an application that is created and maintained by the organization itself, rather than by a third-party vendor, and that is used to process and manage the payroll data of the organization's employees3. The owner of the data confidentiality risk is the person or entity that has the authority and accountability for the data and its protection, and that is responsible for identifying, assessing, and mitigating the risk. The owner of the data confidentiality risk related to an internally developed payroll application that leverages PaaS infrastructure from the cloud is the human resources head, as they are the person who oversees the human resources function and the payroll data of the organization. The human resources head has the best understanding of the sensitivity, value, and usage of the payroll data, and the potential impacts and implications of a data confidentiality breach. The human resources head also has the ability and responsibility to define and implement the policies, procedures, and controls that are necessary to protect the payroll data, and to monitor and report on the performance and compliance of the data confidentiality risk management. The IT infrastructure head, the supplier management head, and the application development head are not the best choices for owning the data confidentiality risk related to an internally developed payroll application that leverages PaaS infrastructure from the cloud, as they do not have the same level of authority and accountability as the human resources head. The IT infrastructure head is the person who oversees the IT infrastructure function and the PaaS infrastructure of the organization. The IT infrastructure head may be involved in providing input and feedback to the human resources head on the data confidentiality risk management, especially those related to the PaaS infrastructure, but they do not have the final say or the overall responsibility for the payroll data and its protection. The supplier management head is the person who oversees the supplier management function and the relationship with the cloud service provider that provides the PaaS infrastructure. The supplier management head may be involved in negotiating and enforcing the service level agreements and the security requirements with the cloud service provider, but they do not have the authority or the expertise to manage the data confidentiality risk of the payroll data. The application development head is the person who oversees the application development function and the development, testing, and deployment of the payroll application. The application development head may be involved in designing and implementing the security features and controls of the payroll application, but they do not have the perspective or the influence to manage the data confidentiality risk of the payroll data. References
= 3: Payroll Software: What Is It & How Does It Work? | QuickBooks2: What is Platform as a Service (PaaS)? | IBM1: Data Confidentiality: Identifying and Protecting Assets Against Data ... : [Risk Ownership - Risk Management] : [Human Resources and Payroll Security Policy - University of ...] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.1: IT Risk Concepts, pp. 17-19.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section
2.1: Risk Identification, pp. 57-59.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: Risk Monitoring, pp. 189-191.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Information Systems Control Design and Implementation, Section
5.1: Control Design, pp. 233-235.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5:
Information Systems Control Design and Implementation, Section 5.2: Control Implementation, pp. 243-245.]: [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Information Systems Control Design and Implementation, Section 5.3: Control Monitoring and Maintenance, pp. 251-253.]
NEW QUESTION # 79
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