[Jan 05, 2025] New AAPC CPC Dumps with Test Engine and PDF (New Questions) [Q43-Q68]

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[Jan 05, 2025] New AAPC CPC  Dumps with Test Engine and PDF (New Questions)

Pass Your CPC Exam Easily - Real CPC Practice Dump Updated


AAPC CPC Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Code a wide variety of patient services using CPT®, ICD-10-CM, and HCPCS Level II codes
  • Explain the determination of the levels of E
  • M services
Topic 2
  • Provide practical application of coding operative reports and evaluation and management services
  • Understand and apply the official ICD-10-CM coding guidelines
Topic 3
  • Apply coding conventions when assigning diagnoses and procedure codes
  • Identify the purpose of the CPT®, ICD-10-CM, and HCPCS Level II code books
Topic 4
  • Identify the information in appendices of the CPT® code book
  • List the major features of HCPCS Level II codes

 

NEW QUESTION # 43
View MR 099405
MR 099405
CC: Shortness of breath
HPI: 16-year-old female comes into the ED for shortness of breath for the last two days. She is an asthmatic.
Current medications being used to treat symptoms is Advair, which is not working and breathing is getting worse. Does not feel that Advair has been helping. Patient tried Albuterol for persistent coughing, is not helping. Coughing 10-15 minutes at a time. Patient has used the Albuterol 3x in the last 16 hrs. ED physician admits her to observation status.
ROS: No fever, no headache. No purulent discharge from the eyes. No earache. No nasal discharge or sore throat. No swollen glands in the neck. No palpitations. Dyspnea and cough. Some chest pain. No nausea or vomiting. No abdominal pain, diarrhea, or constipation.
PMH: Asthma
SH: Lives with both parents.
FH: Family hx of asthma, paternal side
ALLERGIES: PCN-200 CAPS. Allergies have been reviewed with child's family and no changes reported.
PE: General appearance: normal, alert. Talks in sentences. Pink lips and cheeks. Oriented. Well developed.
Well nourished. Well hydrated.
Eyes: normal. External eye: no hyperemia of the conjunctiva. No discharge from the conjunctiva Ears: general/bilateral. TM: normal. Nose: rhinorrhea. Pharynx/Oropharynx: normal. Neck: normal.
Lymph nodes: normal.
Lungs: before Albuterol neb, mode air entry b/l. No rales, rhonchi or wheezes. After Albuterol neb.
improvement of air entry b/l. Respiratory movements were normal. No intercostals inspiratory retraction was observed.
Cardiovascular system: normal. Heart rate and rhythm normal. Heart sounds normal. No murmurs were heard.
GI: abdomen normal with no tenderness or masses. Normal bowel sounds. No hepatosplenomegaly Skin: normal warm and dry. Pink well perfused Musculoskeletal system patient indicates lower to mid back pain when she lies down on her back and when she rolls over. No CVA tenderness.
Assessment: Asthma, acute exacerbation
Plan: Will keep her in observation overnight. Will administer oral steroids and breathing treatment. CXR ordered and to be taken in the morning.
What E/M code is reported?

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3

Answer: C

Explanation:
* 99222: This code is used for initial hospital care, per day, for the evaluation and management of a patient, which requires a detailed or comprehensive history, a detailed or comprehensive examination, and medical decision making of moderate complexity.
* The documentation shows a detailed history (including HPI, ROS, PMH, SH, and FH) and a detailed examination (covering multiple organ systems). The medical decision making involves the management of an acute asthma exacerbation, which includes admitting the patient to observation status, administering oral steroids, and planning for further diagnostic testing.
References:
* CPT Professional Edition, AMA


NEW QUESTION # 44
A 65-year-old gentleman presents for refill of medications and follow-up for his chronic conditions. The patient indicates good medicine compliance. No new symptoms or complaints.
Appropriate history and exam are obtained. Labs that were ordered from previous visit were reviewed and discussed with patient. The following are the diagnoses and treatment:
Hypokalemia - stable. Refill Potassium 20 MEQ
Hypertension - blood pressure remaining stable. Patient states home readings have been in line with goals.
Refill prescription Lisinopril.
Esophageal Reflux - Patient denies any new symptoms. Stable condition. Continue taking over the counter Prevacid oral capsules, 1 every day.
Patient is instructed to follow up in 3 months. Labs will be obtained prior to visit.
What CPT code is reported?

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3

Answer: D

Explanation:
* The patient presented for a follow-up visit for chronic conditions, including hypokalemia, hypertension, and esophageal reflux. During this visit, the physician reviewed and discussed lab results, managed prescriptions, and noted that there were no new symptoms or complaints.
* The level of service provided included an appropriate history and exam, as well as the management of multiple chronic conditions, which aligns with the criteria for CPT code 99214. This code is used for an established patient office or other outpatient visit that requires at least 2 of the following 3 key components: a detailed history, a detailed examination, and medical decision-making of moderate complexity.
References:
* CPT Professional Edition, AMA
* Evaluation and Management Coding Guidelines


NEW QUESTION # 45
A surgeon removes the right and left fallopian tubes and the left ovary via an abdominal incision. How is this reported?

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 58700-50
  • D. 58720-50

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 46
Eric is buying his first life insurance policy from XYZ Life Insurance Company. The company requires Eric have a physical exam prior to issuance of the policy. Eric sees his primary care provider who completes the required documentation and forms provided by the insurance company.
How does the primary care provider report his services?

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3

Answer: D

Explanation:
CPT code 99450 is used for the examination of a patient for the purpose of establishing medical baseline information or for insurance purposes. Since Eric's primary care provider completed the required physical exam documentation for his life insurance policy, this is appropriately reported with code 99450. References:
CPT Professional Edition (current year), AMA.


NEW QUESTION # 47
View MR 004397
MR 004397
Operative Report
Preoperative Diagnosis: Calculi of the gallbladder
Postoperative Diagnosis: Calculi of the gallbladder, chronic cholecystitis Procedure: Cholecystectomy Indications: The patient is a 50-year-old woman who has a history of RUQ pain, which ultrasound revealed to be multiple gallstones. She presents for removal of her gallbladder.
Procedure: The patient was brought to the OR and prepped and draped in a normal sterile fashion. After adequate general endotracheal anesthesia was obtained, a trocar was placed and C02 was insufflated into the abdomen until an adequate pneumoperitoneum was achieved. A laparoscope was placed at the umbilicus and the gallbladder and liver bed were visualized. The gallbladder was enlarged and thickened, and there was evidence of chronic inflammatory changes. Two additional ports were placed and graspers were used to free the gallbladder from the liver bed with a combination of sharp dissection and electrocautery. Cystic artery and duct are clipped. Dye is injected in the gallbladder. Cholangiography revealed no intraluminal defect or obstruction. Gallbladder is dissected from the liver bed. The scope and trocars are removed.
What CPT coding is reported for this case?

  • A. 47600, 74300-26
  • B. 47605, 74300-26
  • C. 47563, 74300-26
  • D. 47562, 74300-26

Answer: C

Explanation:
* 47563: Laparoscopic cholecystectomy with cholangiography is coded as 47563. The report details the laparoscopic removal of the gallbladder with intraoperative cholangiography.
* 74300-26: The radiological supervision and interpretation for the cholangiography is coded as 74300 with modifier -26 (Professional Component) since the interpretation was done by the physician.
References:
* CPT Professional Edition, AMA


NEW QUESTION # 48
A 65-year-old man had a right axillary block by the anesthesiologist. When the arm was totally numb, the arm was prepped and draped, and the surgeon performed tendon repairs of the right first, second, and third fingers.
The anesthesiologist monitored the patient throughout the case.
What anesthesia code is reported?

  • A. 01810
  • B. 01840
  • C. 01820
  • D. 01830

Answer: D

Explanation:
* The anesthesia code for an axillary block for procedures on the upper arm and elbow, which includes the monitoring by the anesthesiologist throughout the procedure, is 01830. This code is appropriate for anesthesia for all procedures on nerves, muscles, tendons, fascia, and bursae of the shoulder and axilla.
References:
* CPT Professional Edition, AMA
* Anesthesia Coding Guidelines


NEW QUESTION # 49
The procedure is performed at an outpatient radiology department. From a left femoral access, the catheter is placed in the abdominal aorta and is then selectively placed in the celiac trunk and manipulated up into the common hepatic artery for an abdominal angiography. Dye is injected, and imaging is obtained. The provider performs the supervision and interpretation.
What CPT codes are reported?

  • A. 36246, 75726-26
  • B. 36246, 75741-26
  • C. 36246, 75716-26
  • D. 36246, 75635-26

Answer: A

Explanation:
* Procedure: Abdominal aorta catheterization and selective placement in the celiac trunk for angiography.
* CPT Codes:
* 36246: This code is for the catheter placement in the abdominal aorta.
* 75726-26: This code represents the abdominal angiography with supervision and interpretation, with the -26 modifier indicating the professional component.
* Code Selection Justification: The procedure involves the catheterization of the abdominal aorta and the specific imaging performed with supervision and interpretation.
References:
* AMA CPT Professional Edition (current year)
* ICD-10-CM (current year)
* HCPCS Level II (current year)


NEW QUESTION # 50
Which entity offers compliance program guidance to form the basis of a voluntary compliance program for a provider practice?

  • A. American Medical Association (AMA)
  • B. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)
  • C. Office for Civil Rights (OCR)
  • D. Office of Inspector General (OIG)

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 51
A woman at 36-weeks gestation goes into labor with twins. Fetus 1 is an oblique position, and the decision is made to perform a cesarean section to deliver the twins. The obstetrician who delivered the twins, provided the antepartum care, and will provide the postpartum care.
What CPT coding is reported for the twin delivery?

  • A. 0
  • B. 59510, 59514, 59515
  • C. 59510, 59515
  • D. 59510 x 2

Answer: A

Explanation:
* Cesarean Delivery with Antepartum and Postpartum Care: The procedure involved the cesarean section delivery of twins, including antepartum and postpartum care.
* CPT Code 59510: This code is used for routine obstetric care including antepartum care, cesarean delivery, and postpartum care. The code is not reported per fetus but per delivery, even when delivering multiples.
References:
* AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year)


NEW QUESTION # 52
A patient with empyema requires a Schede thoracoplasty.
What CPT code is reported for this procedure?

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 53
The CPT code book provides full descriptions of medical procedures, although some descriptions require the use of a semicolon (;) to distinguish among closely related procedures.
What is the full description of CPT code 69644?

  • A. Tympanoplasty with mastoidectomy (including canalplasty. middle ear surgery, tympanic membrane repair); with intact or reconstructed canal wall, with ossicular chain reconstruction
  • B. Tympanoplasty with mastoidectomy (including canalplasty. middle ear surgery, tympanic membrane repair); without ossicular chain reconstruction with intact or reconstructed canal wall, with ossicular chain reconstruction
  • C. With intact or reconstructed canal wall with ossicular chain reconstruction
  • D. Without ossicular chain reconstruction with intact or reconstructed canal wall, with ossicular chain reconstruction

Answer: A

Explanation:
CPT code 69644 refers to a tympanoplasty with mastoidectomy, which includes canalplasty, middle ear surgery, and tympanic membrane repair. The specific procedure described by this code is performed with an intact or reconstructed canal wall and includes ossicular chain reconstruction. The use of a semicolon in the CPT description helps distinguish between different variations of the procedure.References: AMA's CPT Professional Edition, specific code descriptions and guidelines.


NEW QUESTION # 54
The pulmonologist performs a bronchoscopy with fluoroscopic guidance. The scope is introduced into the right nostril and advanced to the vocal cords and into the trachea. The scope is advanced to the right upper lobe and a lung nodule is noted. An endobronchial biopsy is performed.
What CPT code is reported for the procedure?

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 55
The outermost protective layer of skin is called the:

  • A. Subcutaneous tissue
  • B. Hypodermis
  • C. Epidermis
  • D. Dermis

Answer: C

Explanation:
The outermost protective layer of the skin is called the epidermis. It serves as a barrier to protect the body against environmental elements, pathogens, and helps to retain moisture. The epidermis itself is composed of several sub-layers, with the stratum corneum being the outermost layer.References: ICD-10-CM (current year), Chapter 12: Diseases of the Skin and Subcutaneous Tissue (L00-L99).


NEW QUESTION # 56
An incision is made in the scalp, a craniectomy is performed to access the area where electrodes are present.
The electrodes are removed. The surgical wound is closed.
What procedure code is reported?

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3

Answer: A

Explanation:
The procedure described involves the removal of electrodes from the cranial area after making an incision in the scalp and performing a craniectomy.
* Procedure Description:
* Incision in the scalp.
* Craniectomy to access the area with electrodes.
* Removal of electrodes.
* Closure of the surgical wound.
* CPT Coding:
* 61860: Removal of intracranial neurostimulator electrodes, including burr hole(s) or craniectomy.
References:
* AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year).
* CPT Assistant for detailed coding guidelines on neurostimulator procedures.


NEW QUESTION # 57
Patient has cervical spondylosis with myelopathy. The surgeon performed a bilateral posterior laminectomy with facetectomies at each level and foraminotomies performed between interspaces C5-C6 and C6-C7.
Bilateral decompression of the nerve roots is achieved.
What CPT coding is reported?

  • A. 63040-50, 63043, 63043
  • B. 63050-50
  • C. 63045, 63048
  • D. 0

Answer: C

Explanation:
* Cervical spondylosis with myelopathy: Condition requiring decompressive surgery.
* Bilateral posterior laminectomy, facetectomies, foraminotomies: Procedures performed to decompress nerve roots.
* Interspaces C5-C6 and C6-C7: Specific levels where the procedures were performed.
CPT code 63045 is used for the initial cervical laminectomy, and 63048 is for each additional segment. The combination covers the decompression across two interspaces.
References: AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year)


NEW QUESTION # 58
The CPT code book provides full descriptions of medical procedures, although some descriptions require the use of a semicolon (;) to distinguish among closely related procedures.
What is the full description of CPT code 69644?

  • A. Tympanoplasty with mastoidectomy (including canalplasty. middle ear surgery, tympanic membrane repair); with intact or reconstructed canal wall, with ossicular chain reconstruction
  • B. Tympanoplasty with mastoidectomy (including canalplasty. middle ear surgery, tympanic membrane repair); without ossicular chain reconstruction with intact or reconstructed canal wall, with ossicular chain reconstruction
  • C. With intact or reconstructed canal wall with ossicular chain reconstruction
  • D. Without ossicular chain reconstruction with intact or reconstructed canal wall, with ossicular chain reconstruction

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 59
A patient with malignant lymphoma is administered the antineoplastic drug Rituximab 800 mg and then 100 mg of Benadryl.
Which HCPCS Level II codes are reported for both drugs administered intravenously?

  • A. J9312, Q0163
  • B. J9312 x 80, J1200 x 2
  • C. J9312, J1200
  • D. J9312 x 80, 00163 x 2

Answer: C

Explanation:
The patient with malignant lymphoma is administered Rituximab (800 mg) and Benadryl (100 mg) intravenously.
* Procedure Description:
* Administration of Rituximab (800 mg) intravenously.
* Administration of Benadryl (100 mg) intravenously.
* HCPCS Level II Coding:
* J9312: Injection, Rituximab, 10 mg.
* For 800 mg, report 80 units of J9312.
* J1200: Injection, Diphenhydramine HCl, up to 50 mg.
* For 100 mg, report 2 units of J1200.
References:
* HCPCS Level II Code Book (current year).
* HCPCS Level II coding guidelines for intravenous drug administration.


NEW QUESTION # 60
Patient had polyps removed on a previous colonoscopy. The patient returns three months later for a follow-up examination for another colonoscopy. No new polyps are seen.
What diagnosis coding is reported for the second colonoscopy?

  • A. Z09, K63.5
  • B. Z86.010, K63.5
  • C. K63.5
  • D. Z09, Z86.010

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 61
Patient has cervical spondylosis with myelopathy. The surgeon performed a bilateral posterior laminectomy with facetectomies at each level and foraminotomies performed between interspaces C5-C6 and C6-C7. Bilateral decompression of the nerve roots is achieved.
What CPT coding is reported?

  • A. 63040-50, 63043, 63043
  • B. 63050-50
  • C. 63045, 63048
  • D. 0

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 62
Which entity offers compliance program guidance to form the basis of a voluntary compliance program for a provider practice?

  • A. American Medical Association (AMA)
  • B. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)
  • C. Office for Civil Rights (OCR)
  • D. Office of Inspector General (OIG)

Answer: D

Explanation:
The Office of Inspector General (OIG) provides compliance program guidance to form the basis of a voluntary compliance program for provider practices. This guidance is intended to help healthcare providers develop effective internal controls to monitor adherence to applicable statutes, regulations, and program requirements of Federal healthcare programs. The OIG issues various compliance guidelines and resources to assist organizations in establishing comprehensive compliance programs to prevent fraud, waste, and abuse.References: OIG Compliance Program Guidance, AMA's CPT Professional Edition, and healthcare compliance resources.


NEW QUESTION # 63
View MR 099401
MR 099401
Established Patient Office Visit
Chief Complaint: Patient presents with bilateral thyroid nodules.
History of present illness: A 54-year-old patient is here for evaluation of bilateral thyroid nodules. Thyroid ultrasound was done last week which showed multiple thyroid masses likely due to multinodular goiter. Patient stated that she can "feel" the nodules on the left side of her thyroid. Patient denies difficulty swallowing and she denies unexplained weight loss or gain. Patient does have a family history of thyroid cancer in her maternal grandmother. She gives no other problems at this time other than a palpable right-sided thyroid mass.
Review of Systems:
Constitutional: Negative for chills, fever, and unexpected weight change.
HENT: Negative for hearing loss, trouble swallowing and voice change.
Gastrointestinal: Negative for abdominal distention, abdominal pain, anal bleeding, blood in stool, constipation, diarrhea, nausea, rectal pain, and vomiting Endocrine: Negative for cold Intolerance and heat intolerance.
Physical Exam:
Vitals: BP: 140/72, Pulse: 96, Resp: 16, Temp: 97.6 °F (36.4 °C), Temporal SpO2: 97% Weight: 89.8 kg (198 lbs ), Height: 165.1 cm (65") General Appearance: Alert, cooperative, in no acute distress Head: Normocephalic, without obvious abnormality, atraumatic Throat: No oral lesions, no thrush, oral mucosa moist Neck: No adenopathy, supple, trachea midline, thyromegaly is present, no carotid bruit, no JVD Lungs: Clear to auscultation, respirations regular, even, and unlabored Heart: Regular rhythm and normal rate, normal S1 and S2, no murmur, no gallop, no rub, no click Lymph nodes: No palpable adenopathy ASSESSMENT/PLAN:
1) Multinodular goiter - the patient will have a percutaneous biopsy performed (minor procedure).
What E/M code is reported for this encounter?

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 64
A 55-year-old patient was recently diagnosed with an enlarged goiter. It has been two years since her last visit to the endocrinologist. A new doctor in the exact same specialty group will be examining her. The physician performs a medically appropriate history and exam. The provider reviewed the TSH results and ultrasound. The provider orders a fine needle aspiration biopsy which is a minor procedure.
What E/M code is reported?

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 65
The mediastinum is:

  • A. Both the heart and lungs
  • B. A location in the chest, bounded by the sternum, diaphragm, and lungs
  • C. A part of the lymphatic system
  • D. A small endocrine organ behind the heart

Answer: B

Explanation:
The mediastinum is an anatomical region located in the thoracic cavity. It is bounded by the sternum in front, the vertebral column at the back, and is situated between the lungs. It contains the heart, trachea, esophagus, thymus, and other structures, but it is not itself an organ. Therefore, the correct answer is that it is a location in the chest.References: ICD-10-CM, Medical Anatomy and Physiology textbooks


NEW QUESTION # 66
A patient suffers a ruptured infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm requiring emergent endovascular repair. An aorto-aortic tube endograft is positioned in the aorta and a balloon dilation is performed at the proximal and distal seal zones of the endograft. The balloon angioplasty is performed for endoleak treatment.
What CPT code does the vascular surgeon use to report the procedure?

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 67
An established patient suffering from migraines without aura, no mention of intractable migraine, and no mention of status migrainosus, is seen by his ophthalmologist who conducts a visual field examination of both eyes. The examination was accomplished plotting four isopters utilizing the Goldmann perimeter testing method. The patient and requesting physician receive the interpretation and report on the same date of service.
What procedure and diagnosis codes are reported for this encounter?

  • A. 92083, G43.019
  • B. 92081, G43.009
  • C. 92082, G43.009
  • D. 92082, G43.019

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 68
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