[Mar 07, 2024] Latest Cybersecurity-Audit-Certificate PDF Dumps & Real Tests Free Updated Today
Cybersecurity-Audit-Certificate Dumps With 100% Verified Q&As - Pass Guarantee or Full Refund
NEW QUESTION # 38
When reviewing user management roles, which of the following groups presents the GREATEST risk based on their permissions?
- A. Terminated employees
- B. Contractors
- C. Privileged users
- D. Database administrators
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
When reviewing user management roles, the group that presents the GREATEST risk based on their permissions is privileged users. This is because privileged users are users who have elevated or special access rights or permissions to systems or resources, such as administrators, superusers, root users, etc. Privileged users present the greatest risk based on their permissions, because they can perform actions or operations that can affect the security, availability, or functionality of systems or resources, such as installing or uninstalling software, modifying or deleting files, granting or revoking access rights, etc. Privileged users can also abuse or misuse their permissions for malicious or unauthorized purposes, such as stealing or leaking sensitive data, sabotaging systems or services, bypassing security controls, etc. The other options are not groups that present the greatest risk based on their permissions, but rather different types of users that may have different levels of access rights or permissions to systems or resources, such as database administrators (B), terminated employees C, or contractors (D).
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which of the following is the GREATEST drawback when using the AICPA/CICA Trust Sen/ices to evaluate a cloud service provider?
- A. Lack of specificity m the principles
- B. Incompatibility with cloud service business model
- C. Inability to issue SOC 2 or SOC 3 reports
- D. Omission of confidentiality in the criteria
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The GREATEST drawback when using the AICPA/CICA Trust Services to evaluate a cloud service provider is the lack of specificity in the principles. This is because the AICPA/CICA Trust Services are a set of principles and criteria that provide guidance for evaluating and reporting on controls over information systems and services. However, the principles and criteria are very broad and generic, and do not address the specific risks and challenges that are associated with cloud services, such as data sovereignty, multi-tenancy, portability, etc. The other options are not drawbacks when using the AICPA/CICA Trust Services to evaluate a cloud service provider, but rather different aspects or benefits of using the AICPA/CICA Trust Services to evaluate a cloud service provider, such as compatibility (A), confidentiality C, or reporting (D).
NEW QUESTION # 40
Which of the following BEST facilitates the development of metrics for repotting to senior management on vulnerability management efforts?
- A. Regularly benchmarking the number of new vulnerabilities identified with industry peers
- B. Monitoring the frequency of vulnerability assessments using automated scans
- C. Reviewing business impact analysis (BIA) results
- D. Tracking vulnerabilities and the remediation efforts to mitigate them
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The BEST feature that facilitates the development of metrics for reporting to senior management on vulnerability management efforts is tracking vulnerabilities and the remediation efforts to mitigate them. This is because tracking vulnerabilities and remediation efforts helps to measure and monitor the performance and effectiveness of vulnerability management efforts, by providing quantifiable and objective data on the number, severity, impact, status, and resolution time of vulnerabilities. Tracking vulnerabilities and remediation efforts also helps to identify and communicate any gaps or issues in vulnerability management efforts to senior management and other stakeholders. The other options are not features that facilitate the development of metrics for reporting to senior management on vulnerability management efforts, but rather different aspects or factors that affect vulnerability management efforts, such as reviewing business impact analysis (BIA) results (A), benchmarking with industry peers (B), or monitoring the frequency of vulnerability assessments (D).
NEW QUESTION # 41
Which of the following backup procedure would only copy files that have changed since the last backup was made?
- A. Differential backup
- B. Full backup
- C. Incremental backup
- D. Daily backup
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The backup procedure that would only copy files that have changed since the last backup was made is an incremental backup. This is because an incremental backup is a type of backup that only copies the files that have been created or modified since the previous backup, whether it was a full or an incremental backup. An incremental backup helps to reduce the backup time and storage space, as well as the recovery time, as only the changed files need to be restored. The other options are not backup procedures that would only copy files that have changed since the last backup was made, but rather different types of backup procedures that copy files based on different criteria, such as daily backup (B), differential backup C, or full backup (D).
NEW QUESTION # 42
Which of the following contains the essential elements of effective processes and describes an improvement path considering quality and effectiveness?
- A. COBIT 5
- B. Capability maturity model integration
- C. 60 270042009
- D. Balanced scorecard
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The document that contains the essential elements of effective processes and describes an improvement path considering quality and effectiveness is Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI). This is because CMMI is a framework that defines five levels of process maturity, from initial to optimized, and provides best practices and guidelines for improving the quality and effectiveness of processes across different domains, such as software development, service delivery, or cybersecurity. The other options are not documents that contain the essential elements of effective processes and describe an improvement path considering quality and effectiveness, but rather different types of documents or tools that provide guidance or recommendations for implementing policies or controls, such as Balanced Scorecard (B), ISO 27004:2009 C, or COBIT 5 (D).
NEW QUESTION # 43
Which of the following is MOST important to ensure the successful implementation of continuous auditing?
- A. Budget for additional technical resources
- B. Budget for additional storage hardware
- C. Surplus processing capacity
- D. Top management support
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The MOST important factor to ensure the successful implementation of continuous auditing is top management support. This is because top management support helps to provide the vision, direction, and resources for implementing continuous auditing within the organization. Top management support also helps to overcome any resistance or challenges that may arise from implementing continuous auditing, such as cultural change, stakeholder buy-in, process reengineering, etc. Top management support also helps to ensure that the results and findings of continuous auditing are communicated and acted upon by the relevant decision-makers and stakeholders. The other options are not factors that are more important than top management support for ensuring the successful implementation of continuous auditing, but rather different aspects or benefits of continuous auditing, such as storage hardware (A), technical resources (B), or processing capacity (D).
NEW QUESTION # 44
Which of the following is the GREATEST risk pertaining to sensitive data leakage when users set mobile devices to "always on" mode?
- A. A user's behavior pattern can be predicted.
- B. An adversary can predict a user's login credentials.
- C. Mobile connectivity could be severely weakened.
- D. Authorization tokens could be exploited.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The GREATEST risk pertaining to sensitive data leakage when users set mobile devices to "always on" mode is that authorization tokens could be exploited. Authorization tokens are pieces of data that are used to authenticate users and grant them access to certain resources or services. Authorization tokens are often stored on mobile devices to enable seamless and convenient access without requiring users to enter their credentials repeatedly. However, if users set their mobile devices to "always on" mode, they increase the risk of losing their devices or having them stolen by attackers. Attackers can then access the authorization tokens stored on the devices and use them to impersonate the users or access their sensitive data.
NEW QUESTION # 45
What is the FIRST activity associated with a successful cyber attack?
- A. Reconnaissance
- B. Creating attack tools
- C. Maintaining a presence
- D. Exploitation
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The FIRST activity associated with a successful cyber attack is reconnaissance. This is because reconnaissance is a phase of the cyber attack lifecycle that involves gathering information about the target organization or system, such as its network topology, IP addresses, open ports, services, vulnerabilities, etc. Reconnaissance helps to identify potential entry points and weaknesses that can be exploited by the attackers in later phases of the attack. The other options are not the first activity associated with a successful cyber attack, but rather follow after reconnaissance in the cyber attack lifecycle, such as exploitation (A), maintaining a presence C, or creating attack tools (D).
NEW QUESTION # 46
Which of the following is the MOST serious consequence of mobile device loss or theft?
- A. Physical damage to devices
- B. Installation of unauthorized applications
- C. Cost of purchasing replacement devices
- D. Compromise of transient data
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The MOST serious consequence of mobile device loss or theft is the compromise of transient data. Transient data is data that is temporarily stored or processed on a mobile device, such as cached data, cookies, browsing history, passwords, or session tokens. Transient data can reveal sensitive information about the user or the organization and can be exploited by attackers to gain access to other systems or networks.
NEW QUESTION # 47
The risk of an evil twin attack on mobile devices is PRIMARILY due to:
- A. use of data transmission that is not always encrypted.
- B. tokens stored as plain text in many mobile device applications.
- C. weak authentication protocols in wireless networks.
- D. generic names that mobile devices will accept without verification.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The risk of an evil twin attack on mobile devices is PRIMARILY due to the use of generic names that mobile devices will accept without verification. An evil twin attack is a type of wireless network attack where an attacker sets up a rogue access point that mimics a legitimate one. The attacker can then lure unsuspecting users to connect to the rogue access point and intercept their data or launch further attacks. Mobile devices are vulnerable to evil twin attacks because they often use generic names for their wireless networks, such as "Free WiFi" or "Public Hotspot". These names can be easily spoofed by an attacker and accepted by mobile devices without verifying the identity or security of the access point.
NEW QUESTION # 48
Which of the following is the MOST cost-effective technique for implementing network security for human resources (HR) desktops and internal laptop users in an organization?
- A. Software defined perimeter
- B. Fortified demilitarized zone
- C. Virtual local area network
- D. Layer 3 virtual private network
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The MOST cost-effective technique for implementing network security for human resources (HR) desktops and internal laptop users in an organization is using a virtual local area network (VLAN). A VLAN is a logical grouping of network devices that share the same broadcast domain regardless of their physical location or connection. A VLAN can enhance network security by isolating different types of traffic or users from each other and applying different security policies or rules based on the VLAN membership. For example, an organization can create a VLAN for HR desktops and internal laptop users that restricts their access to only HR-related systems or resources. A VLAN can also reduce network costs by saving bandwidth, improving performance, and simplifying management.
NEW QUESTION # 49
Which of the following is a limitation of intrusion detection systems (IDS)?
- A. Application-level vulnerabilities
- B. Lack of Interface with system tools
- C. Weak passwords for the administration console
- D. Limited evidence on intrusive activity
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A limitation of intrusion detection systems (IDS) is that they cannot detect application-level vulnerabilities. An IDS is a tool that monitors network traffic or system activity and alerts on any suspicious or malicious events.
However, an IDS cannot analyze the logic or functionality of applications and identify vulnerabilities such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting, or broken authentication.
NEW QUESTION # 50
Which control mechanism is used to detect the unauthorized modification of key configuration settings?
- A. Whitelisting
- B. File integrity
- C. URL filtering
- D. Sandboxing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The control mechanism that is used to detect the unauthorized modification of key configuration settings is file integrity. File integrity is the property of ensuring that files are not altered or corrupted by unauthorized users or processes. File integrity can be monitored by using tools that compare the current state of files with a baseline or checksum and alert on any changes.
NEW QUESTION # 51
Which of the following is the MOST important step to determine the risks posed to an organization by social media?
- A. Review cybersecurity insurance requirements for the organization s social media.
- B. Review costs related to the organization's social media outages.
- C. Review the disaster recovery strategy for the organization's social media.
- D. Review access control processes for the organization's social media accounts.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The MOST important step to determine the risks posed to an organization by social media is to review access control processes for the organization's social media accounts. This is because access control processes help to ensure that only authorized users can access, modify, or share the organization's social media accounts and content, and prevent unauthorized or malicious access or disclosure of sensitive or confidential information.
Access control processes also help to protect the organization's reputation and brand image from being compromised or damaged by unauthorized or inappropriate social media posts. The other options are not as important as reviewing access control processes for the organization's social media accounts, because they either relate to costs (A), insurance (B), or recovery C aspects that are not directly related to the risks posed by social media.
NEW QUESTION # 52
Which of the following describes specific, mandatory controls or rules to support and comply with a policy?
- A. Standards
- B. Basedine
- C. Guidelines
- D. Frameworks
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Specific, mandatory controls or rules to support and comply with a policy are known as standards. This is because standards define the minimum level of performance or behavior that is expected from an organization or its employees in order to achieve a policy objective or requirement. Standards also provide clear and measurable criteria for auditing and monitoring compliance with policies. The other options are not specific, mandatory controls or rules to support and comply with a policy, but rather different types of documents or tools that provide guidance or recommendations for implementing policies or controls, such as frameworks (A), guidelines (B), or baselines C.
NEW QUESTION # 53
Which of the following is a feature of an intrusion detection system (IDS)?
- A. Intrusion prevention
- B. Automated response
- C. Interface with firewalls
- D. Back doors into applications
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A feature of an intrusion detection system (IDS) is automated response. This is because an IDS is a system that monitors network or system activities for malicious or anomalous behavior, and alerts or reports on any detected incidents. An IDS can also perform automated response actions, such as blocking traffic, terminating sessions, or sending notifications, to contain or mitigate the incidents. The other options are not features of an IDS, but rather different concepts or techniques that are related to intrusion detection or prevention, such as intrusion prevention (A), interface with firewalls C, or back doors into applications (D).
NEW QUESTION # 54
Which of the following is EASIEST for a malicious attacker to detect?
- A. Use of insufficient cryptography
- B. Insecure storage of sensitive data
- C. Ability to tamper with mobile code
- D. Susceptibility to reverse engineering
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The EASIEST thing for a malicious attacker to detect is the susceptibility to reverse engineering. Reverse engineering is the process of analyzing the code or functionality of an application to understand its structure, logic, or design. Reverse engineering can be used by attackers to discover vulnerabilities, bypass security mechanisms, or modify the application's behavior. Mobile applications are often susceptible to reverse engineering because they are distributed in binary form and can be easily decompiled or disassembled.
NEW QUESTION # 55
in key protection/management, access should be aligned with which of the following?
- A. Position responsibilities
- B. System limitation
- C. Least privilege
- D. Role descriptions
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
In key protection/management, access should be aligned with the principle of least privilege. This means that users should only have the minimum level of access required to perform their tasks and no more. This reduces the risk of unauthorized access, misuse, or compromise of sensitive data or systems.
NEW QUESTION # 56
A cloud service provider is used to perform analytics on an organization's sensitive data. A data leakage incident occurs in the service providers network from a regulatory perspective, who is responsible for the data breach?
- A. The organization
- B. Dependent upon the nature of breath
- C. Dependent upon specific regulatory requirements
- D. The service provider
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A cloud service provider is used to perform analytics on an organization's sensitive data. A data leakage incident occurs in the service provider's network. From a regulatory perspective, the organization is responsible for the data breach. This is because the organization is the data owner and has the ultimate accountability and liability for the security and privacy of its data, regardless of where it is stored or processed.
The organization cannot transfer or delegate its responsibility to the service provider, even if there is a contractual agreement or service level agreement that specifies the security obligations of the service provider.
The other options are not correct, because they either imply that the service provider is responsible (A), or that the responsibility depends on the nature of breach (B) or specific regulatory requirements C, which are not relevant factors.
NEW QUESTION # 57
Availability can be protected through the use of:
- A. user awareness training and related end-user training.
- B. redundancy, backups, and business continuity management
- C. access controls. We permissions, and encryption.
- D. logging, digital signatures, and write protection.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Availability can be protected through the use of redundancy, backups, and business continuity management.
This is because these measures help to ensure that systems, data, and services are accessible and functional at all times, even in the event of a disruption or disaster. The other options are not directly related to protecting availability, but rather focus on enhancing confidentiality (A), integrity C, or awareness (D).
NEW QUESTION # 58
Which of the following is an attack attribute of an advanced persistent threat (APT) that is designed to remove data from systems and networks?
- A. Infiltration attack vector
- B. Kill chain modeling
- C. Adversarial threat event
- D. Exfiltration attack vector
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
An example of an attack attribute of an advanced persistent threat (APT) that is designed to remove data from systems and networks is an exfiltration attack vector. An exfiltration attack vector is a method or channel that an APT uses to transfer data from a compromised system or network to an external location. Examples of exfiltration attack vectors include email, FTP, DNS, HTTP, or covert channels.
NEW QUESTION # 59
......
2024 Valid Cybersecurity-Audit-Certificate test answers & ISACA Exam PDF: https://www.actual4cert.com/Cybersecurity-Audit-Certificate-real-questions.html
Pass ISACA Cybersecurity-Audit-Certificate Exam With Practice Test Questions Dumps Bundle: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1W-V7NdMc3jAyAw_vs5AIJ-0g1DWRWMKT